:)
Brilliant_Rock
- Joined
- Jul 25, 2006
- Messages
- 1,864
I saw a stone today. It falls outside of AGS ideal and GIA excellent standards. It was graded as GIA ''very good'' for cut. Yet James Allen lists it as ''ideal'' cut on their website.
James Allen''s definition of cut when you click on the link next to their label of ''cut: ideal'' is:
"This refers mainly to the "make" of a diamond. Meaning the exact proportions that were given to the diamond when it was polished by the diamond cutter. There are some that say that the cut of a diamond is the most important factor when considering the 4C''s (cut, color, clarity, carat). The cut determines the brilliance, fire, and scintillation of a diamond. So the better the cut, the more sparkle the diamond will display."
That seems misleading to me. I know we sort of discussed using the ''ideal'' term in the past, but to use it as far as actual cut when it is clearly outside of both labs parameters seems misleading to me (using the Holloway to see this). Anyone disagree? Anyone feel that since each lab (meaning AGS, GIA) has their own parameters it should also be permissible for each company to have their own ideal parameters?
I am interested to hear the experts opinions. (although all others are welcome too!)
BTW the parameters were:
61.6
55
40.4
35
(and no, it does not appear to be one of their actual stones - it appears to be a virtual stone)
James Allen''s definition of cut when you click on the link next to their label of ''cut: ideal'' is:
"This refers mainly to the "make" of a diamond. Meaning the exact proportions that were given to the diamond when it was polished by the diamond cutter. There are some that say that the cut of a diamond is the most important factor when considering the 4C''s (cut, color, clarity, carat). The cut determines the brilliance, fire, and scintillation of a diamond. So the better the cut, the more sparkle the diamond will display."
That seems misleading to me. I know we sort of discussed using the ''ideal'' term in the past, but to use it as far as actual cut when it is clearly outside of both labs parameters seems misleading to me (using the Holloway to see this). Anyone disagree? Anyone feel that since each lab (meaning AGS, GIA) has their own parameters it should also be permissible for each company to have their own ideal parameters?
I am interested to hear the experts opinions. (although all others are welcome too!)
BTW the parameters were:
61.6
55
40.4
35
(and no, it does not appear to be one of their actual stones - it appears to be a virtual stone)