1.27 carats
F color
VS2
6.68x6.91x4.34
56% table
62.9% depth
It was shown to me as an "ideal cut," but I'm not sure if it really is. Does it seem to deep? And what about the fact that there is such a wide differentiation in the diameter sizes?
According to the American Gem Society - AGS, in order for a diamond to qualify with ideal proportions the table must be 53–57% and the depth must range for 60 – 62.8%
While I think the world of WhiteFlash ... can you show me this in AGS nomenclature? The reason I ask is because I've read as much as I believe there is to read regarding what constitutes the AGS "0" grade for cut and have NEVER seen this before. I can point you to AGS Reports themselves that say otherwise. That is why I was questioning your source.
To my knowledge, insofar as proportions are concerned, the factors that make for ideal proportions I'll take directly from our site here ... http://www.goodoldgold.com/ideal_cut_diamonds.htm
"The following chart is a breakdown of what makes the stone the proportion cut grade that it is....
Ideal cut. Grade of "0"
crown angles 33.7° - 35.8°
pavilion depth 42.2 - 43.8%
table size 52.4 - 57.5%
culet pointed or none, very small, small or medium
girdle thin, medium or slightly thick"
To my knowledge there is no mention of ideal total depth %.
We ended up finding a better stone that we have decided to get. Here are the specs:
1.37 carats
F color
VS 1
56% table
60.2% depth
thin to slightly thick girdle
no flourescence
no culet
good polish
very good symmetry
In addition, it is GIA certified with a laser inscription. The price we are paying is $8,600. A better price for a better stone!