by virginia1 » Apr 1, 2002 Since I have not done side-by-side analysis, does anyone know if I could tell any difference between two stones if the only difference was that one was an AGS-0, and one was GIA with "very good" symmetry? That is, does this difference in symmetry grading make a noticeable difference in visual quality? This leads me to a second question. I have mainly focused my search on AGS-0 diamonds. But I found an interesting GIA stone in my price range, and I asked Blue nile for Sarin numbers. They didn't send me a picture of the report, but they told me that they were: Depth 60.1% Table 56% Crown angle: 34.3 Pav angle: 40.7 1.06, G, VS2 round for $6925. Just so happens that this brings up all "excellents" and a score of 0.6 on the good old HCA. Maybe I am being unduly cynical, but is it possible that a vendor would doctor Sarin numbers because they know that I probably asked for them to plug into the HCA? I already had one pricescope vendor tell me that the HCA was just "one man's opinion" that he "has made a lot of money on." Anyhow, I asked them for an actual copy of the sarin report (AShford has provided me with these before), but I haven't heard back yet. At any rate, my main question is still whether, given the fact that my girlfriend has told me she places a premium on "sparkle", my departure from AGS-0 diamonds will make any discernible difference to the non-gemologist eye. Thanks--I appreciate everybody's help through this fun but crazy process!