SI2 - Need to be Eyeclean? Wait a second...

shmurgshmurg · Oct 24, 2008

That makes sense. So, being that my inclusion does not break the surface (my inclusion def. does not - it is way in the stone - you can see in the cert. in the other post), it would therefore fall into Denverappraiser's other category that he listed: "the inclusion is only visible from the back" and that is why the GIA cert. has it indicated on the back - likely for identification purposes because it can't be seen from the front (and the front is the way you all said clairty is analyzed). Would that be a fair statement?

Put another way, because it is ONLY visible from the back - and within the cert it is only indiciated on the back - this appraiser was a complete ass for arguing that it was an I1 and not an SI2 due to this specific inclusion - chiefly because you can only see this particular inclusion from the back - and as you all said - clarity is graded from the top - AND as you also said, GIA puts it on the back if you can only see it from the back! - which is def. the case here!

This appraiser did not know what he was talking about - salesmen. grrrr........

So, can I calm down now and move on with my life? Please? I could't sleep last night!

Lorelei · Oct 24, 2008

Date: 10/24/2008 10:17:43 AM
Author: shmurgshmurg
That makes sense. So, being that my inclusion does not break the surface (my inclusion def. does not - it is way in the stone - you can see in the cert. in the other post), it would therefore fall into Denverappraiser''s other category that he listed: ''the inclusion is only visible from the back'' and that is why the GIA cert. has it indicated on the back - likely for identification purposes because it can''t be seen from the front (and the front is the way you all said clairty is analyzed). Would that be a fair statement?

Put another way, because it is ONLY visible from the back - and within the cert it is only indiciated on the back - this appraiser was a complete ass for arguing that it was an I1 and not an SI2 due to this specific inclusion - chiefly because you can only see this particular inclusion from the back - and as you all said - clarity is graded from the top - AND as you also said, GIA puts it on the back if you can only see it from the back! - which is def. the case here!

This appraiser did not know what he was talking about - salesmen. grrrr........

So, can I calm down now and move on with my life? Please? I could''t sleep last night!

YES!!! LOL!!! You can indeed and enjoy your diamond!

WinkHPD · Oct 24, 2008

Date: 10/23/2008 1:58:37 PM
Author:shmurgshmurg
So everyone, I bought that SI2 I was talking about.

It is beautiful.

I took it to another jewelery store where I am getting the mounting (they originally wanted to sell me a diamond but they were too expensive). Anyhow, the guy there did a ''free appraisal.'' He said everything matches up, and it is indeed a triple ex (he did a bunch of measurements).

However, he had issue with one of the inclusions. From the top down (even with a loupe), you can NOT see ANYTHING. However, when you flip it upside down, you can see in the diamond a little white line/inclusion or feather (not sure which one it is - it is white). You can see this from the naked eye if you are looking for it upside down. You cannot see ANYTHING from the top, even with a loupe.

He was saying that it really should be an I1 because of this. He explained that if you can see the inclusion with the naked eye, it should really always be deemed an I1, at least. The GIA cert says that it is an SI2 and it has no other inclusions.

Is he giving me B.S. because I didn''t buy the stone from him in the first place?

This just doesn''t seem right - because I saw at least 10 to 20 other SI2s over the past week, and I would say that over 85% of them I could see at least something with the naked eye (most of which I could see from the top down - I fell in love with my stone because you cant see anything from the top down).

What is going on here?!?!?!?

I am joining the thread late, been a little occupied this week, so this has likely been answered.

Just to add my own answer, YES, he is either giving you BS or he is stupid, either choice is bad.

Any gemologist worth his salt knows that diamonds are graded from the top, and even being able to see an inclusion from the top does not automatically make a diamond an I1.

So, any jeweler, who may or may not be a gemologist, who tries to practice gemology by giving such bad information is either stupid or dispensing BS, either choice is bad...

Wink, too tired to be nice about it this morning.