littledebbie
Shiny_Rock
- Joined
- Oct 5, 2007
- Messages
- 119
I need to know whether all stones that were cut about 35-40 years ago would have a bruted girdle. I just picked up my 1 carat round that my mother bought 35-40 years ago and am positive the diamond was switched when it was re-set. I asked the sales-lady to show me the diamond under a microscope to plot out some flaws in it before releasing it to her. She said she did not have a microscope but a 10x loupe (sp?) So I found a needle large needle and we both noted it. When I picked the ring up yesterday she said she didn''t have the loupe with her but that she did the appraisal and it''s my diamond. I believed her and under the store lighting it looked fine and I did not examine in totally closely. Well after I got home last night I can see that there are visible inclusions that I can see from the side that my diamond did not have. I used to clean it with a toothbrush and baking soda and so I know that it did not have them. Also my diamond had a bruted girdle with a frosted appearance around the border. This diamond does not have this. I need to know if I can use this an proof that the diamond was switched. I paid for the setting with my American Express and have called and put in a dispute on the charge. Their store is closed today, but I will call tomorrow when they open. I am so mad right now my hands are shaking and I can barely type! I knew I should have had an appraisal done before I gave them the stone but I thought that plotting out the flaws would be good enough. What else should I do? What can be done legally if they put up a fight and claim that that is my diamond. Sorry this is so disjointed, but I am just so upset. Please give me any advice you can.