Hello All!
I had some specs sent to me by an online vendor, and included with the email was a scan of the GIA dossier and a printout from a local sarin of sorts. They differ in two places from what I can tell...
The GIA report states that the table % is 57%.
The Sarin states that it is 55.3%.
The GIA report states that there is no culet.
The sarin states that the culet is 1.3%.
This info comes from a vendor that is given very high ratings on pricescope, so I'm trying to figure out if my understanding of these reports is wrong or if the vendor made an error.
Of these two reports, which is the most accurate? Could both of these reports be accurately representing the same diamond (through some sort of averaging...granted, pretty funky averaging)? I'm guessing that the most accurate would be the GIA, and BTW it is laser inscribed with the GIA # so I could, at the very least, match the rock with the GIA cert...
Any help would be appreciated!
Thanks a ton, all!
I had some specs sent to me by an online vendor, and included with the email was a scan of the GIA dossier and a printout from a local sarin of sorts. They differ in two places from what I can tell...
The GIA report states that the table % is 57%.
The Sarin states that it is 55.3%.
The GIA report states that there is no culet.
The sarin states that the culet is 1.3%.
This info comes from a vendor that is given very high ratings on pricescope, so I'm trying to figure out if my understanding of these reports is wrong or if the vendor made an error.
Of these two reports, which is the most accurate? Could both of these reports be accurately representing the same diamond (through some sort of averaging...granted, pretty funky averaging)? I'm guessing that the most accurate would be the GIA, and BTW it is laser inscribed with the GIA # so I could, at the very least, match the rock with the GIA cert...
Any help would be appreciated!
Thanks a ton, all!
