Gypsy
Super_Ideal_Rock
- Joined
- Aug 8, 2005
- Messages
- 40,225
AGBF|1333255834|3161050 said:Gypsy|1333254172|3161043 said:GlamMosher|1333252380|3161034 said:Ok help me out here.
mary poppins said:In 2010, the Florida Supreme Court ruled that when a criminal defendant files a motion to dismiss asserting that he was immune from criminal prosecution because his actions were a justified use of force under Florida statute 776.032, the trial court should conduct an evidentiary hearing and decide the factual question of the applicability of the statutory immunity. A defendant who asserts immunity has the burden of establishing the factual prerequisites to the immunity claim by a preponderance of the evidence (a much lower standard than “beyond a reasonable doubt.”). Thus, a defendant who establishes entitlement to immunity avoids being subjected to trial/jury.
The Florida Supreme Court specifically “reject[ed] the State’s contention that the pretrial hearing on immunity in a criminal case should test merely whether the State has probable cause to believe the defendant’s use of force was not legally justified.”
If the trial court denies the motion to dismiss, the defendant may submit the issue to the jury as an affirmative defense in his criminal trial. At trial, after the defendant makes a showing of self defense, the State must prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant did not act in self defense.
Gypsy said:So whether or not the use of force was justified is irrelevant in applicability of the Stand Your Ground immunity. WOW. That's really crazy. And (IMO) wrong.
So, if say in this case, Zimmerman's claims he was entitled to kill Martin due to the Stand Your Ground law, does that make him immune from being charged? Or should it go before an evidentiary hearing to determine?
I probably need to read the links, but to be honest even the above quotes make my head hurt trying to understand.
From what I understand, it CAN go to an evidentiary hearing. I'm not sure if it's compulsory in every instance of the invocation of that statute though. Should be (IMO), but I don't know if it actually IS.
Must I repeat that the federal government used to use its powers to intervene when a black person was killed by a white person in a southern state with atavistic laws? Once there was a Civil Rights Act the federal government was able to sue white individuals who took the lives of black individuals-lawfully under the state laws of the south-based on their having deprived the black individuals of their civil rights...like the right to breathe while being black.
Deb/AGBF
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AGBF, I don't understand what you are saying here. I really don't. Are you trying to draw a parrallel and say that the State of Florida is using this law (or maybe the prosecutors office and the cops