I purchased a 1.19k Brilliant VVS2 G diamond solitaire engagement ring from Tiffany several years ago. A few weeks ago, my wife discovered a chip in the diamond that was not previously there. I brought the ring into Tiffany, and they sent it to their facility for assessment. Their determination was that there is a chip between the prongs starting at the girdle and going down the pavilion, and it was likely caused by impact on the girdle. This implies a scenario that seems unlikely given that my wife doesn’t even sleep with the ring on, much less work out or other activities that might expose the stone to a force that somehow chipped the stone without leaving any traces on the prongs or anywhere else.
I don’t know anything about gems, however, so I’d like to know what more informed people think of this scenario. Approximately how much force would be required? Is it possible that there was an undetected flaw in the stone that manifested in this chip?
Tiffany has offered to re-cut the stone to remove the chip and subsequently make it symmetrical. I’m not happy with the carat loss inherent in that approach and would prefer to have the stone on the grounds that they sold me a lemon. Their response is that there are no such things as lemons when it comes to diamonds, and that this sort of chip necessarily happened subsequent to purchase. I’m not an unreasonable person; I’m just looking to validate what they are telling me and if I should simply accept their version of events.
I appreciate any expertise in the matter.