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- Jun 3, 2008
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OK, I''m going to try to explain this as well as I possibly can, but I''m no tax pro, so please bear with me!
DH''s employer provided him with a company vehicle around the middle of this year. He drives it to and from work, drives it around to various job sites all day long for work purposes, and is also permitted to drive it for personal use as much as he wants. (The VAST majority of the miles put on this vehicle are work-related miles, not commuting or personal miles.) However, DH just found out that he has to pay some sort of tax on the mileage that he drives it for personal use (including commuting to and from work). That makes sense, and we aren''t arguing with the fact that he should pay some sort of tax on the personal mileage, since that is essentially a form of compensation that he receives. HOWEVER, his employer is collecting this tax in one big lump sum from his paycheck this week. We have two issues with this:
1. Shouldn''t the employer simply list the personal mileage as compensation on DH''s W-2 for this year and allow DH to pay the tax directly to the IRS, rather than the employer collecting the tax themselves?
2. The employer explained to DH that the IRS actually taxes the employer based on the number of miles the company vehicle is driven, and the employee must then reimburse the employer for the portion of those miles that were personal. In other words, this tax should not appear on our tax return at all, but only on the employer''s (according to the employer). This does not make any sense to me whatsoever. I don''t see how the IRS can tax the employer for the use of its own vehicle??? In fact, can''t a business actually claim DEDUCTIONS for the costs related to a business-owned vehicle (purchase price, depreciation, gas, maintenance, etc.)?
I''m just concerned that we''re going to somehow wind up paying this tax twice . . . once to the employer when it''s deducted from DH''s check this week, and again to the IRS when we file our taxes for 2009. I''d greatly appreciate any light anyone can shed on this!

DH''s employer provided him with a company vehicle around the middle of this year. He drives it to and from work, drives it around to various job sites all day long for work purposes, and is also permitted to drive it for personal use as much as he wants. (The VAST majority of the miles put on this vehicle are work-related miles, not commuting or personal miles.) However, DH just found out that he has to pay some sort of tax on the mileage that he drives it for personal use (including commuting to and from work). That makes sense, and we aren''t arguing with the fact that he should pay some sort of tax on the personal mileage, since that is essentially a form of compensation that he receives. HOWEVER, his employer is collecting this tax in one big lump sum from his paycheck this week. We have two issues with this:
1. Shouldn''t the employer simply list the personal mileage as compensation on DH''s W-2 for this year and allow DH to pay the tax directly to the IRS, rather than the employer collecting the tax themselves?
2. The employer explained to DH that the IRS actually taxes the employer based on the number of miles the company vehicle is driven, and the employee must then reimburse the employer for the portion of those miles that were personal. In other words, this tax should not appear on our tax return at all, but only on the employer''s (according to the employer). This does not make any sense to me whatsoever. I don''t see how the IRS can tax the employer for the use of its own vehicle??? In fact, can''t a business actually claim DEDUCTIONS for the costs related to a business-owned vehicle (purchase price, depreciation, gas, maintenance, etc.)?
I''m just concerned that we''re going to somehow wind up paying this tax twice . . . once to the employer when it''s deducted from DH''s check this week, and again to the IRS when we file our taxes for 2009. I''d greatly appreciate any light anyone can shed on this!
