Hi there,
I am considering a 1.7ct DVS2 stone certified by GIA dated July 2005 which is under the old format report. some salient specs are ;
Depth 60.6
Table 58%
Girdle thin to med
culet none
Flor none
Po and sym both EX
The stone has quite distinctiveH&A pattern and has good brillance.
Can I conclude that this stone should have an Ideal cut? the jeweller here in Asia do not know what is a Sarin report and hence none is available. Also will there be a price diff for stones bet 53 to 57% table and one that is 58% given all else equal? I mean can table 58% stone still be considered an Ideal cut stone?
I am considering a 1.7ct DVS2 stone certified by GIA dated July 2005 which is under the old format report. some salient specs are ;
Depth 60.6
Table 58%
Girdle thin to med
culet none
Flor none
Po and sym both EX
The stone has quite distinctiveH&A pattern and has good brillance.
Can I conclude that this stone should have an Ideal cut? the jeweller here in Asia do not know what is a Sarin report and hence none is available. Also will there be a price diff for stones bet 53 to 57% table and one that is 58% given all else equal? I mean can table 58% stone still be considered an Ideal cut stone?