AmberGretchen
Ideal_Rock
- Joined
- Jan 6, 2005
- Messages
- 7,770
OK, so this question is on behalf of someone I know. This person (X) decided to sell their house early last year. They hired a selling agent, we''ll call them L, and put it up for sale. It didn''t sell, and come last Fall (October 2007), X terminated his/her relationship with the seller''s agent L. I don''t know all of the reasons for this, but X made it clear he/she wanted nothing further to do with L in selling his/her house.
Now L has come back with potential buyers, even though the house isn''t really on the market (but X would still like to sell). The potential buyers check out OK, even have cash ready to go, and X feels he/she *might* be OK with the price they are offering. However, when L called X and told him/her about these people, L said that he/she was acting as the the buyers agent for the potential buyers. That left X with no sellers agent in the transaction. However, L is still insisting that X has to pay the entire 6% standard commission (this is in California if that helps), rather than just the buyer''s portion of the commission. L insists that this is the policy of the company, not L''s personal policy. But X knows that L has been dishonest or at least manipulative in the past. The 3% commission difference would make a significant difference to X in terms of money in his/her pocket, and as he/she is nearing retirement its kind of a big deal. And of course, it seems outrageous (to me at least) to be paying a seller''s agent commission when X has no one protecting his/her interests in the deal.
Finally, the timeline on all of this is SUPER fast - the buyers want all the inspections done in 3 days, and they want X out of the house in 21 days. I don''t know if this changes anything, but it certainly doesn''t give X a lot of time to figure out where he/she stands.
I think this sounds like crap, but I don''t know anything about real estate law, so I thought I would check here. Basically, I have a couple of questions.
1. Is X in fact obligated to pay the full 6% commission even if there is only one agent in the transaction? Do real estate companies (Pacific Union or Coldwell Banker or whoever, as examples) really have this policy that the full 6% gets paid, even if there''s only an agent on one side?
2. Isn''t it illegal, or at least unethical, for L to try to act as the agent for both the buyers and for X as the seller, since presumably they have conflicting interests?
Depending on the answers to the above two questions, what should X do to protect his/her interests?
I''d really appreciate any answers/knowledge, or even clues for where to look for answers.
Now L has come back with potential buyers, even though the house isn''t really on the market (but X would still like to sell). The potential buyers check out OK, even have cash ready to go, and X feels he/she *might* be OK with the price they are offering. However, when L called X and told him/her about these people, L said that he/she was acting as the the buyers agent for the potential buyers. That left X with no sellers agent in the transaction. However, L is still insisting that X has to pay the entire 6% standard commission (this is in California if that helps), rather than just the buyer''s portion of the commission. L insists that this is the policy of the company, not L''s personal policy. But X knows that L has been dishonest or at least manipulative in the past. The 3% commission difference would make a significant difference to X in terms of money in his/her pocket, and as he/she is nearing retirement its kind of a big deal. And of course, it seems outrageous (to me at least) to be paying a seller''s agent commission when X has no one protecting his/her interests in the deal.
Finally, the timeline on all of this is SUPER fast - the buyers want all the inspections done in 3 days, and they want X out of the house in 21 days. I don''t know if this changes anything, but it certainly doesn''t give X a lot of time to figure out where he/she stands.
I think this sounds like crap, but I don''t know anything about real estate law, so I thought I would check here. Basically, I have a couple of questions.
1. Is X in fact obligated to pay the full 6% commission even if there is only one agent in the transaction? Do real estate companies (Pacific Union or Coldwell Banker or whoever, as examples) really have this policy that the full 6% gets paid, even if there''s only an agent on one side?
2. Isn''t it illegal, or at least unethical, for L to try to act as the agent for both the buyers and for X as the seller, since presumably they have conflicting interests?
Depending on the answers to the above two questions, what should X do to protect his/her interests?
I''d really appreciate any answers/knowledge, or even clues for where to look for answers.