Help! How does

[movesale03]

I need the help of an expert!

Could anyone educate me how does "cut" contribute to the overall price of the diamond?

Let''s say, there are two diamond, GIA certified.
These are hypotetical diamonds having exact same tabel % and depth %.
No information about the crown angle and pavilion angle.

1) 1 ct
F
VS1
polish - excellent
symmetry - excellent
Culet: None
Fluorescence: No
Girdle: medium to slightly thick


2) 1ct
F
VS1
polish - good
symmetry - good
Culet: None
Fluorescence: No
Girdle: medium to slightly thick

Given such diamonds, how does "cut" determine the overall price?
I am wondering when two diamonds having the identical parameters, but having the differences only in proportion/cut,
then how much of that difference contributes to pricing the diamond??

My fiance wants to know why the Rapaport report does not have "proportion/cut" matrix but only the color/clarity/size.
He says that when you are presneted with two diamonds and they are exactly same size/color/clarity,
but one is more expensive than the other, then why one diamond costs more?

He was approached by the jewerller and asked about the size/color/clarity grades,
but, he was not asked about the cut until I joined the conversation.
And, the above question popped up.

Thank you very much for your help!

 

[Maxine]

You might get more varied response if you post this under Rocky Talky....appraisers often chime in there, too........

 

[cflutist]

Obviously, the better the cut, the higher the price for same color/clarity combo.

Best thing is to use the "Price Stats" feature of this website (link at the top of the page) to get some actual numbers:

e.g. For F-VS1 1.00 - 1.49 cts, average prices are:

H&A 8089/ct
1A 7883/ct
1B 7349/ct
2A 7122/ct etc.