ACN
Rough_Rock
- Joined
- May 1, 2009
- Messages
- 71
I have a question regarding the market value and how stones are appraised by an independent appraiser. Here is the situation that I tried to get answered by the appraiser; but still am not sure of how it works. Say I buy the following stone (2.0 ct I VS2) at the following places:
Online: $20,000 (H&A pattern - branded)
B&M: $40,000 (HOF)
Tiffany: $35,000 (their round cut)
From my understanding, it shouldn''t matter where you buy the stone as a 2ct I VS2 from any of the following places should basically be the same exact stone (and appraise for the same amount). So given this situation, my stone was appraised for 50% more from my online purchase price, so $30,000. Would the same stone bought at Tiffany''s or the B&M store appraise for $30k (even though you paid $40k or $35k) or does the appraiser take into account the extreme mark-up at these places or the "Tiffany/Cartier" name and thus appraises it for a greater amount??
I figure that no matter where you bought this H&A stone, it should appraise for the same amount. If someone could please clarify this situation as I am completely confused.
Online: $20,000 (H&A pattern - branded)
B&M: $40,000 (HOF)
Tiffany: $35,000 (their round cut)
From my understanding, it shouldn''t matter where you buy the stone as a 2ct I VS2 from any of the following places should basically be the same exact stone (and appraise for the same amount). So given this situation, my stone was appraised for 50% more from my online purchase price, so $30,000. Would the same stone bought at Tiffany''s or the B&M store appraise for $30k (even though you paid $40k or $35k) or does the appraiser take into account the extreme mark-up at these places or the "Tiffany/Cartier" name and thus appraises it for a greater amount??
I figure that no matter where you bought this H&A stone, it should appraise for the same amount. If someone could please clarify this situation as I am completely confused.